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5votes
5answers
1kviews

Is the "wavefunction collapse" interpretation consistent with relativity?

This can be viewed as a follow up to this/this questions about an apparent inconsistency between the notion of wavefunction collapse and relativity. The setup is simple: two entangled systems are ...
J. Delaney's user avatar
-2votes
1answer
103views

How would you derive the Copenhagen interpretation rules from the many-worlds theory?

I have a real problem with understanding this one. Suppose you are taught in some school, without access to experiments, just theory, the many-worlds interpretation of physics. So that's all you have, ...
Eric Taylor's user avatar
4votes
4answers
443views

Solution to the measurement problem - explanation

Has the measurement problem been resolved? Could someone explain the current state-of-the-art understanding of why deterministic evolution results in a random measurement outcome? Is there a model ...
SSS's user avatar
  • 71
14votes
3answers
3kviews

Why are there no clear experiments describing the exact boundary between classical and quantum sizes?

Why are there no clear experiments describing the exact boundary between classical and quantum sizes? Assuming we believe in interpretations of quantum mechanics (QM) that state during measurement (...
David's user avatar
  • 1,126
2votes
3answers
160views

What mathematical results support the idea that the wavefunction does not evolve unitarily before the experimenter interacts with the system?

Some interpretations of quantum mechanics support the conclusion that, from the perspective of an experimenter, the state of the universe evolves unitarily until the experimenter observes the outcome. ...
Ryder Rude's user avatar
1vote
2answers
97views

Are the wave-functions in surrounding objects collapsed?

Can we say that the wave functions in a cup of tea, a blanket, a stool, and other surrounding objects, are collapsed due to the constant interaction of these objects with photons and other radiation?
nilecrocodile's user avatar
-1votes
2answers
142views

What does the Copenhagen Interpretation say about after a collapse?

Very simple question, and I think it doesn't have an answer since CI is inherently incomplete. But when a particle is collapsed after being measured, what happens then? Does it remain a particle ...
BENG's user avatar
  • 119
-2votes
1answer
90views

Quantum collapse: our invention? [closed]

I'm wondering if a similar scenario has already been proposed, or if this one is somehow valid. I'm a complete layman so be patient.My reasoning goes like this: is the collapse of the wave function a ...
Marco Fabbri's user avatar
2votes
1answer
119views

Relationship of the do-operator in do calculus and the notion of the collapse of wave a function

I stumbled over the "do calculus" in causal modeling https://arxiv.org/abs/1210.4852 and the do-operator which is defined in this post https://stats.stackexchange.com/a/643333/298651 The do-...
-4votes
2answers
128views

Does a quantum measurement change the state in the past? [closed]

Consider the following very basic quantum mechanics experiment. At time $t_0$, a system $S$ is in superposition of two orthogonal states $|A\rangle$ and $|B\rangle$, which we could describe by $\frac{...
Riemann's user avatar
  • 1,609
0votes
4answers
630views

Copenhagen Interpretation vs Quantum Decoherence? [closed]

I'm learning about Quantum Mechanics, and have a question about the Copenhagen Interpretation. It states that the act of observation collapses the wave function. It seems many people take this to ...
MajorChipHazard's user avatar
1vote
1answer
112views

The many-worlds interpretation and a free particle

How does the many-worlds interpretation understand the time evolution and spread of a free particle wave function? That is, does every continuously small change constitute a cosmic action that causes ...
Hulkster's user avatar
2votes
3answers
308views

Is the measurement problem an interpretation or practical problem?

According to Wikipedia: In quantum mechanics, the measurement problem is the problem of how, or whether, wave function collapse occurs. Is the measurement problem an interpretation problem or a ...
Riemann's user avatar
  • 1,609
3votes
3answers
935views

Can gravity cause a wave function to collapse?

Assume the Copenhagen interpretation. Suppose that a particle, for example an electron, has a wavefunction. If a heavy object, like the Earth, is close by, then that object interacts with the electron ...
Riemann's user avatar
  • 1,609
1vote
1answer
172views

Who caused first collapse of wave function?

With my wife we discuss a quantum theory and wonder whether a wave function could collapse without an observer - meaning a human/or any other living beings. If so we could make a conclusion that there ...
Jirka Meluzin's user avatar

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